This is one of the reasons I was somewhat uncomfortable with unambiguously calling it rape in the first place. I mean, of course what Heartbreaker is doing is rape, but what about someone in this situation? Someone who didn’t cause the change, and hell, might not even know about it?
That’s a whole lot more ambiguous, and rests on whether we consider the victim unable to consent in general or just unable to consent to Heartbreaker specifically (or even able to consent to anyone, including Heartbreaker). In the first case, even if the victim manages to escape despite the permanent attraction to Heartbreaker and move on with her life, any sex she chooses to have after it will still be considered non-consensual.
I don’t have a good answer here. For the canon scenario where Heartbreaker restricts it to himself, the second approach seems more relevant. But in the scenario you present in the ask? I have no clue how to deal with that.
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